Lebesgue Measure Cranks
Page last updated 4 Nov 2024
Crank 1
A reader sent me an email, claiming that he could prove that my analysis of Lebesgue measure at An example of Lebesgue measure could not be correct - by claiming that he could demonstrate a specific example of an irrational number in the set
Let
We will prove that
Lemma. For all
Proof. Let
Then we have:
Since
Meanwhile, we also have:
Thus:
Now we can prove that
For any complete interval, among all rational numbers it contain, there must be one that appears before other rationals in the given ordering.
Let that rational be
Then, the length of the complete interval containing
However, if
and if
Thus,
It's immediately obvious that there must be something wrong with the above “proof”, since the result is saying that the irrational
But there’s an even simpler way of demonstrating that it cannot be correct - simply choose an enumeration of rationals that has 62⁄100 as its first rational, then the first interval 1⁄10 wide obviously includes 0.618… since its endpoints are 0.57 and 0.67.
The reason for the contradiction lies in the very first line of the “proof” - the author provides no reason why the function
The author has simply selected this function without providing any logical rationale, creating a spurious relationship between the value of that specific function (the
In summary, the above “proof” is asinine crankery, not mathematics. Manipulation of mathematical symbols is pointless if sequences of symbols are haphazardly introduced without any underlying logical rationale.
Crank 2
The author of the following “proof” claimed that my analysis of Lebesgue measure at An example of Lebesgue measure could not be correct. He attempted to post it as a comment, but it was devoid of any sort of reasonable formatting, making it extremely difficult to read, and for that reason I moved it from the comments section to another page. I have now formatted his “proof” here so that anyone can easily read it (you can see the unformatted original at Moved comments for this site). The author claims that he can construct an irrational number that does not lie in any complete interval of A, nor is an endpoint of such a complete interval; his “proof” of this is the following (note that an interval of A is called a “complete interval” of A if it is not a sub-interval of any interval of A apart from itself):
Let us have an enumeration of the rational numbers in (0,1),
As Mr. Meyer nicely pointed out, all the complete intervals can be enumerated. So let us enumerate them as
Aim:
to construct a number
Implication:
if such an
Construction:
Expand
Now, we create the number
Clearly,
Let us show that
If possible, let
Let
Case 1: Suppose
By the reverse triangle inequality
where
Note that
Since we are dealing with decimal digits
Hence,
implies
Case 2:
But we know that
So we simplify the beginning inequality,
using the reverse triangle inequality as in Case 1, but slightly differently,
where
So
Again
On the other hand,
and
and so on.
So making the substitutions, we get
implies
implies (telescoping the sum from the right hand side)
implies
But
Clearly,
The author’s conclusion leads directly to the contradiction that there must be two endpoints of complete intervals of A, between which there are no other points of A, but which includes this purported irrational. This is a direct contradiction since between any two reals there exists infinitely many rationals, and by definition, every rational is covered by an interval that is an interval of A.
But anyway, let’s examine the argument to see how the fallacy arises. The author selects a rational number with one decimal place, making sure that that value is not within
He finally declares that he has constructed an irrational that is not within any
But he completely evades the question of when and how his sequence of rationals magically transforms into an irrational. There's no point in filling a page with mathematical manipulations if you’re simply going to dodge the fundamental underlying problem.
It’s rather ironic that the argument used is basically the same argument that Cantor uses in his 1874 proof, where, if there is a series of nested intervals (each inside another interval) then while the nesting is infinite and never actually reaches a stage where there remains only one point, there must be a point that is not the endpoint of any of the nested intervals. The difference is that in his paper, Cantor correctly notes that this point is the limit value both of the sequence of left endpoints, and of the sequence of right endpoints.
The reality is that infinitely nested intervals that are all defined as non-degenerate do not somehow magically “nest down” to a single point, a single point is only obtained by applying a limit. And the fact is that regardless of how large
The author’s description only gives, for any chosen
The irony here is that by applying a limit to the author’s description, we obtain irrational limit points that are the endpoints of complete intervals of the set
Rationale: Every logical argument must be defined in some language, and every language has limitations. Attempting to construct a logical argument while ignoring how the limitations of language might affect that argument is a bizarre approach. The correct acknowledgment of the interactions of logic and language explains almost all of the paradoxes, and resolves almost all of the contradictions, conundrums, and contentious issues in modern philosophy and mathematics.
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